My community association board has just discovered that one of our board members is not eligible to be on our board because she does not own property in the area described in the bylaws as being part of the association. She did once live in the area, but she sold her home and moved over 100 miles away. She did claim that she could keep her position because she owned rental property in the area. We just learned that her rental property is not in our association area, either. She has been ineligible for more than a year now. She has resigned under fire. Do her votes on board issues for the time she was ineligible count as legitimate votes? Signed, B.B.
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